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Wk 3, Case 5 - Review

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This case I know very well.

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I interviewed the patient myself.

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This is the wife of a, um,

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chief financial officer.

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Um, she's a mom.

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She had, um, some plantar fasciitis and

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they thought she might have some tarsal

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tunnel syndrome initially, and they did a

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tarsal tunnel release and allegedly did

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some plantar fascial surgery at a very

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esteemed institution, Duke University in North

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Carolina, and she is now permanently disabled.

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So let's see what happened.

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Once again, we're putting up our

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water-weighted sagittal images.

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Actually, we'll put up all our

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sagittal images like we said we would.

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A T1 on the right, a T2 in the middle,

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A proton density fat suppression

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on the left T's pretty good.

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I like 40 but that's all right.

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You have very good fat suppression.

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Look how black the fat is and let's

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scroll.

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Now she's 50.

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Why would a 50-year-old have

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muscles that look like this?

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Look at the gradient echo.

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I'm sorry, look at the T2 stir, my

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apology, the T2 stir. Look at the

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demon, and the, and the musculature.

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It's diffusely

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edematous, yet it's atrophic.

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Now,

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let's look at another projection.

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Let's take three short-axis projections.

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There is one. There's two, there's three.

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Remember, I did say the patient

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is permanently disabled.

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She cannot stand for more

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than 10 seconds on her foot.

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So she, you know, when she goes into a

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grocery store, she has to have a cart.

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She has to roll herself on a cart.

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Let's blow them up.

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So they all fit

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in the windows very nicely.

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Now you should all be struck

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by the loss of muscularity.

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You know, it's the simple, simple

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things that we tend to overlook.

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I mean, that really is going to tell

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the story for you because there aren't

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too many things in a 50-year-old woman

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that give you segmental muscle atrophy.

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And at the same time, edema, muscular edema.

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So you think to yourself, is

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this a primary muscle process?

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Or is this a primary nerve process?

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Now we all know from the history, she had surgery.

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So the likelihood of it being a

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primary muscle process isn't very high.

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We also can see the distribution of edema.

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See, it doesn't involve the

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flexor digitorum brevis.

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It doesn't involve the abductor digiti minimi.

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But it does involve the flexor hallucis.

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And it is centered in the region

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of the tarsal tunnel space.

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This is the tarsal tunnel space.

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And what's in that space?

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Well, we've got our friends Tom,

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the posterior tibial tendon, bounded

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superficially by the flexor retinaculum.

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We've got our friend Dick, the flexor

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digitorum, and Harry, the flexor hallucis.

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And we also have...

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Let's

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keep looking.

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We also have the neurovascular bundle.

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We've got some veins right

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here, some superficial veins.

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We have a small artery right here, small artery.

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But what's this?

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It's that.

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And what is that?

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That's the last cut.

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That's the last proximal cut.

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So we have this thing.

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Now we try and follow it down.

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There it is.

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Now it's gone.

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And now we have that thing and that thing.

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And now it looks more like a nerve breaking

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up into the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

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There they are right there, right there.

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Now let's go back.

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That is a stump neuroma.

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That is the other end of the stump.

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They transected her posterior tibial nerve.

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Now, whether they spared the lateral

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plantar nerve, is a question.

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I'm not going to get into the anatomy and that

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kind of detail, but I'm 100 percent confident

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they transected her medial plantar nerve and most

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likely transected the posterior tibial nerve.

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We may have caught her in a period where

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she just hasn't undergone the extent of

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atrophy and the lateral musculature, but

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this is what stump neuromas look like.

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They look globular like the end of a thermometer.

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They're slightly hyper intense on T2

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weighted image, brighter than muscle,

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but not usually as bright as fluid.

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They enhance with contrast avidly.

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We did not give any.

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And because this has been ongoing for quite some

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time, there was an attempt at repairing this.

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It was unsuccessful.

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Um, there, there really is no, no other treatment

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other than physical therapy and pain management

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with gabapentin and other nerve suppressing drugs.

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So this is a nerve injury with stump neuromas

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producing tarsal tunnel syndrome predominantly

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in the distribution of the medial plantar nerve.

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You do not need contrast for a case like

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this, although I will admit that in many cases

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of stump neuroma formation, where you have

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tremendous amounts of scar, which you do here.

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And you have anatomic distortion.

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Maybe it's a trauma.

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I've seen it happen with a sciatic

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nerve in a motorcycle accident.

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I've seen it happen with just about

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every nerve in the body for somebody

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that doesn't look at a lot of MRI.

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If you do fat suppression contrast imaging,

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it will light up the stump neuroma.

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And it'll make it much easier for you to make the

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diagnosis at the advanced or expert level.

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It is mostly unnecessary to give

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contrast for this diagnosis.

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Now, if you are simply evaluating for

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tarsal tunnel syndrome, you might consider

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giving it to look for small schwannomas,

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which can cause tarsal tunnel syndrome.

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I don't need contrast to look at varices,

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another cause of tarsal tunnel syndrome.

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The most common cause, by the way, of

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tarsal tunnel syndrome is repetitive.

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friction from abuse or overuse

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with a scarred flexor adnaculum.

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This one is a post-operative iatrogenic example.

Report

Patient History
50-year-old woman with a history of previous left plantar fasciotomy and nerve repair, now complaining of sharp pain in the same foot.

Findings
Skeletal/osseous and articulations:
Mild 1st metatarsophalangeal joint arthrosis, with associated joint space narrowing. No substantial spurring or subchondral fibrovascular reaction.

Mild to moderate degenerative arthrosis of the lateral sesamoid and to a lesser degree medial sesamoid. Lateral sesamoid demonstrates bipartite configuration.

Incidental note is made of a non-shouldered medial talar dome osteochondral lesion/defect measuring 5 x 6 mm. No displaced intra-articular fragment identified.

No substantial arthropathic change involving the visualized midfoot or 2nd to 5th metatarsophalangeal joints.

No micro- or macro-trabecular fracture. No stress related osteoedema. No stress fracture.

Incidental type 1 os navicularis/os tibialis externum. No adjacent posterior tibial tendinopathy.
Lisfranc joint:
Intact.

Tendons:
Intact and unremarkable.

Ligaments:
Intact.

Plantar plates:
Intact.

Soft tissues:
See below.

Other:
Status post previous medial cord plantar fasciotomy and tarsal tunnel surgery with nerve repair. Partially imaged nodular low signal fibrous scar tissue along the flexor retinaculum and throughout the tarsal tunnel, measuring approximately 1.8 x 1.1 cm. Fibrous pseudomass abuts the adjacent tibial nerve and tibial nerve bifurcation within the tarsal tunnel. Fibrous pseudomass causes nerve compression within the tarsal tunnel. Mild thickening and edema of the plantar nerves within the tarsal tunnel.

Myoedema and mild-to-moderate atrophy of the quadratus plantae muscle, suggesting active lateral plantar nerve entrapment with function denervation.

Impressions
Tarsal tunnel syndrome with the following:
1. Postsurgical fibrous pseudomass involving the flexor retinaculum and tarsal tunnel, contributing to tibial and calcaneal nerve entrapment/impingement.
2. Muscle edema and atrophy of the quadratus plantae muscle, consistent with active impingement (Baxter neuropathy/forme fruste tarsal tunnel syndrome).
3. Incidental small osteochondral lesion of the medial talar dome, lateral sesamoid arthrosis, and mild 1st metatarsophalangeal joint arthrosis.

Case Discussion

Faculty

Stephen J Pomeranz, MD

Chief Medical Officer, ProScan Imaging. Founder, MRI Online

ProScan Imaging

Jenny T Bencardino, MD

Vice-Chair, Academic Affairs Department of Radiology

Montefiore Radiology

Edward Smitaman, MD

Clinical Associate Professor

University of California San Diego

Tags

Musculoskeletal (MSK)

MRI

Foot & Ankle

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