Interactive Transcript
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This is our fourth vignette discussing sequences
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and we're going to throw all the sequences
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at you so that you have a very deep bench,
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deep knowledge of what sequences do what.
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And on the far left is a T1
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spin echo with fat suppression.
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A lot of practitioners use this
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after the arthrogram to highlight
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the difference between the contrast
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and the surrounding bone and labrum.
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I personally.
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Do not prefer this sequence.
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When you're looking for intra-substance
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labral pathology, it doesn't do a tremendous
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job unless you have cystic change.
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I prefer the proton density fat
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suppression sequence, or the
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standard T1 without fat suppression.
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This axial projection, which by the way has
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a tear that is through and through, does
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not demonstrate the tear very adequately.
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Let's scroll it from top and keep going
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down where there is a tear right here.
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We are right now through the
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very tear, yet we don't see it.
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Now perhaps, the sequence, which is greater
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than three millimeters, is a little too thick.
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But the tear is also very tiny.
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So if you're going to perform axial imaging,
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For labral pathology, I would strongly urge you
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to consider three-dimensional isotropic imaging
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whether you put contrast in the joint or not.
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I'm showing this T1 fat suppression because it
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happens to be a fan favorite, but it is limited.
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Now, does it show the tear?
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Yes, indirectly it does.
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And here it is, right there.
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That paralabral cyst tells
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you that there's a tear.
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Now, here's a problem.
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How do you know that isn't the little
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bit of contrast that extravasated?
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You don't know because you've already
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put the contrast in the joint.
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So that's another potential limitation of
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only performing contrast arthrographic MRI.
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You don't know whether signals are
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primary or secondary to the injection.
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And identifying these primary abnormalities
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like paralabral cysts and swelling and
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inflammation is so important to characterizing
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the importance of the abnormality.
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Let's move over to these two.
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These are two orthogonal coronal sequences.
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In other words, they're straight anterior
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to posterior, which is just fine.
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But as we get more advanced, coming up to the
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next vignette, coming to a theater near you,
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you're going to see oblique coronals, and
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oblique axials, and radials, and how they can
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augment the diagnosis of labral pathology.
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But even with orthogonals, the T1 image,
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with contrast in the joint, shows a through
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and through fissure-like vertical tear right
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at the acetabulolabral and hyaline labral
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junction, one of the more common types of tears.
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And we didn't see it very well in
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the axial orthogonal projection.
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We see that the capsule is tightly
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adherent to the lateral aspect of
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the acetabulum on both sequences.
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But I would have to admit that the tear is
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a little more easily visualized on the T1
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weighted image than it is on the PD spur.
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Now, what would I recommend you choose?
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I think for the post-arthrographic
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image, it is really your choice.
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The proton density fat suppression does
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a better job at showing inflammation
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and edema in the bone marrow as a sign,
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as an indirect sign that that
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labral pathology is causing symptoms.
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For many adults have labral
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pathology that's asymptomatic.
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On the other hand, in my opinion, the
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actual visualization of the tear in
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the cartilage itself is a little easier
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to see on the T1 spin echo image after
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contrast is injected into the joint.
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Some of you who are newer to MRI may
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choose to do both for the two reasons
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that we have already articulated.
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So, when we move on to the next sequences,
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we're going to look at some of these
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sequences, but with different angulations
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and projections, and also some three
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dimensional thin-section imaging.
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Thanks.
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